1: An unknown chemical element is presented by the following formula, what does the index Z represents
a. Atomic mass number
b. Atomic number
c. Principle quantum number
d. Orbital quantum number
2: The ionization energy of an atom as compared to the binding energy of its nucleus is
a. Greater
b. Less
c. Positrons
d. None of these
3: The number of protons in any atom is always equal to the number of
a. Neutrons
b. Electrons
c. Positrons
d. Mesons
4: Number of protons in a nucleus is called its
a. Atomic mass number
b. Atomic number
c. Principle quantum number
d. Orbital quantum number
5: The rest mass of proton is
a. 0.511Mev
b. 938MeV/c2
c. 940Mev
d. 931.48Mev
6: The rest mass energy of proton is
a. 0.511Mev
b. 938MeV
c. 940Mev
d. 931.48Mev
7: If the mass of proton is completely converted into energy, it will be about
a. 3.1Mev
b. 938MeV
c. 10078Mev
d. 931.48Mev
8: For spherically symmetric charge distribution into energy Quadra pole moment is
a. Positive
b. Negative
c. Zero
d. Not predicted yet
9: An unknown chemical element is presented by the following formula, what does the index A represent:
a. Atomic mass number
b. Atomic number
c. Principle quantum number
d. Orbital quantum number
10: The protons and neutrons collectively called
a. Nucleons
b. Bosons
c. Fermions
d. Atomic number
11: The atomic number is equivalent to which of the following
a. The number of neutrons in an atom
b. The number of protons in an atom
c. The number of nucleons in an atom
d. none of these
12: The atomic mass number is equivalent to which of the following
a. The number of neutrons in an atom
b. The number of protons in an atom
c. The number of nucleons in an atom
d. The number of α particles in the atom
13: Which of the following particle has smallest mass
a. Positive
b. Negative
c. Zero
d. Not predicted yet
14: Which of the following statements about the mass of an atom is true
a. It is evenly divided between the protons and orbiting electrons
b. It is evenly divided between the nucleons and orbiting electrons
c. It is concentrated in the electron cloud
d. It is concentrated in the nucleons
15: The radius of Ne nuclide is
a. R=Rο(20)1/2
b. R=Rο(20)2/3
c. R=Rο(10)1/2
d. R=Rο(10)2/3
16: Which of the following is correct for the number of neutrons in the nucleus
a. N=A-Z
b. N=Z-A
c. N=Z+A
d. Z=A
17: How many electrons in the 6C12 atom
a. 12
b. 6
c. 18
d. 3
18: How many nucleons in the 1020N atom
a. 12
b. 6
c. 18
d. 20
19: How many neutrons in the 92238U atom
a. 92
b. 146
c. 238
d. 330
20: How many neutrons in the 1123N atom
a. 12
b. 11
c. 18
d. 24
21: How many protons in the 147N atom
a. 14
b. 6
c. 7
d. 21
22: When a microgram of matter is converted to energy, the amount of energy released will be
a. 3×104 J
b. 9×107 J
c. 9×1010 J
d. 9×1014 J
23: The amount of energy equivalent to a.m.u is
a. 931.5MeV
b. 93.15MeV
c. 9.315MeV
d. 2.224MeV
24: 1 a.m.u is equal to
a. 1.66 ×10-24 kg
b. 1.66×10-19 kg
c. 1.66 ×10-34 kg
d. 1.66×10-27 kg
25: The nucleus was discovered in 1911 by
a. Chadwick
b. Bohr
c. Rutherford
d. Einstein
26: What law did Rutherford use to estimate the size of nucleus
a. Conservation of nucleus number
b. Conservation of angular momentum
c. Conservation of linear momentum
d. Conservation of energy
27: The nuclides 23He and 24He are
a. Isotopes
b. Isotones
c. Isobars
d. Isomers
28: The number of isotopes in cesium is
a. 4
b. 32
c. 22
d. 36
29: An element in A decay into C by a two-step process; $\mathbf{A{\rightarrow\ B+\ }_2^4He, \ \ \ \ \ B{\rightarrow\ C+\ }2e^-}$ ,Then
a. A and C are isobars
b. A and B are isotopes
c. A and C are isotopes
d. A and B are isobars
30: The nuclides 1840Ar, 1940K and 2030Ca are
a. Isotopes
b. Isotones
c. Isobars
d. Isomers
31: The nuclides 1838Ar, 1939K and 2040Ca are
a. Isotopes
b. Isotones
c. Isobars
d. Isomers
32: The nuclides 612C, 816O and 714N are
a. Isodiapheres
b. Isotones
c. Isobars
d. Isomers
33: The nuclides 37Li, are 47Be are
a. Isotopes
b. Isotones
c. Mirror nuclei
d. Isomers
34: Isotopes of an element have
a. The same number of protons are electrons, but different number of neutrons
b. The same number of protons are neutrons, but different number of electrons
c. Different number of protons
d. Different number electrons
35: Isotopes are atoms having
a. The same number of protons, but different number of neutrons
b. The same number of protons, but different number of protons
c. Same number of protons and neutrons
d. None of above
36: Energy equivalent to mass defect is known as
a. Mass defect
b. Binding energy
c. Packing fraction
d. none of them
37: Binding energy is
a. The amount of energy required to break a nucleus apart into protons and neutrons
b. The amount of energy required to break a nucleus apart into protons and electrons
c. The amount of energy required to break a nucleus apart into electron and neutrons
d. The amount of energy released when proton change energy levels
38: The binding energy of alpha particle per nucleons is
a. 7.05MeV
b. 28.20MeV
c. 7.05KeV
d. 931.5MeV
39: The average binding energy of a nucleus is
a. 8BeV
b. 8MeV
c. 8 KeV
d. 8eV
40: The mass defect for the nucleus of helium is 0.0303u, What is the binding energy for nucleus for helium in MeV
a. 27
b. 7
c. 5
d. 1
41: The difference of mass of nucleons in a nucleus and mass that nucleus measured experimentally is
a. Mass defect
b. Binding energy
c. Packing fraction
d. none of them
42: If mH is the atomic mass of hydrogen mn is the mass of a neutron and M is the atomic mass of atom which of the following is the mass defect formula
a. ∆m=ZmH+NmH-M
b. ∆m=ZmH+Nmn+M
c. ∆m=ZmH-Nmn-M
d. All of above
43: Binding energy per nucleon is maximum for
a. aluminum
b. iron
c. gold
d. copper
44: When nucleons from a stable nucleus binding energy is
a. Creating from nothing
b. Destroying into nothing
c. Transferred into visible light
d. released as high energy protons
45: When a nucleus is divided into its constituents, energy is
a. Absorbed by the nucleus which then breaks it into apart
b. Created from nothing
c. Destroying from nothing
d. Transferred into visible light
46: An isotope with a high binding energy per nucleon
a. Will decay in a short period of time
b. Very unstable
c. Very stable
d. has a few electrons
47: The binding energy of He4 and B10 are 27.27MeV and 64.69MeV respectively, which one has greater stability
a. 24He
b. 510B
c. 24He and 510B
d. cannot be predicted from a given data
48: Which statement best describes the structure of an atom
a. A positive core surrounded by electrons packed tightly around it
b. A positive comprised of a mixture of protons, electrons and neutrons
c. A tiny nucleus of proton and neutrons with electron orbiting around it
d. A large core of protons and electrons surrounded by neutrons
49: An electron moves with a speed equal to 4/5 that of light, which one of the following is the ratio of mass of electron to its rest mass
a. 5/4
b. 5/3
c. 29/9
d. 25/16
50: of the three isotopes of Hydrogen 11H, 12H and 13H
a. Two are stable
b.All are stable
c. 13H decays to 12H
d. 13H decays 23H
51: Why do heavier nuclei have a greater ratio of neutrons to protons than lighter nuclei
a. To add more nucleons so that the binding energy is greater
b. To provide more attractive strong nuclear force to balance the repulsive electromagnetic force
c. To provide a greater weak nuclear force
d. To provide more attractive electromagnetic force
52. The packing fraction is zero for
a. 816O
b. 2658Fe
c. 612C
d. 37Li
53: Antimatter consists of atoms containing
a. Protons, neutrons and electrons
b. Protons, neutrons and positrons
c. Antiprotons, antineutrons and antipositrons
d. Antiprotons, antineutrons and antielectrons
54: Which principle states our inability to measure both momentum and position simultaneously with unlimited accuracy
a. The principle of least square
b. The principle of uncertainty
c. The Pauli’s exclusion principle
d. The principle of conservation of momentum
55. If the nuclei X and Y are fused from a nucleus of mass M and some energy is released then:
a. X-Y=M
b. X+Y>M
c. Very stable
d. X+Y=M
56: The nuclides 613C, are 714N can be described as
a. Isotones
b. Isotopes of carbon
c. Isobars
d. Isotopes of Nitrogen
57: If M is the atomic mass and A is the mass number then (M-A)/A
a. Packing fraction
b. Mass defect
c. Fermi energy
d. Binding energy
58: If electric dipole field has odd parity, then magnetic dipole
a. Even
b. Odd
c. Mixed
d. Zero
59. The BE/A is maximum for
a. Iron
b. Gold
c. Silver
d. Copper
60: The quadrapole is zero when shape of nucleus is
a. Spherical
b. Elliptical
c. Prolate
d. Hyperbolic
61: When electric quadrapole is negative the shape of nucleus is
a. Soccer
b. Elliptical
c. Pumpkin
d. none of these
62: When electric quadrapole is positive the shape of nucleus is
a. Soccer
b. Elliptical
c. Pumpkin
d. none of these
63: The atomic number is equivalent to number of
a. Neutrons in an atom
b. Protons in an atom
c. Nucleons in an atom
d. α particles
64: Which force is responsible for radioactive decay of the nucleus
a. Gravitational force
b. Weak nuclear force
c. Strong nuclear force
d. Electromagnetic Force
65: When a nucleus is divided into its constituents, energy is
a. Created from nothing
b. Destroyed into nothing
c. Transferred into visible light
d. released as high energy protons
66: The nucleus magneton is
a. µN=5.05×10-27 J/T
b. µN=5.05×10+20 J/T
c. µN=5.05×10+27 J/T
d. µN=5.05×10-20 J/T
67: Nuclear force is
a. Charge independent
b. Mass independent
c. Short range
d. All of these
68: Of the following, when an atom emits alpha particle its mass number is
a. Decreases by 4 and its atomic number is increased by 2
b. Increases by 4 and its atomic number is decreased by 2
c. Decreases by 4 and its atomic number is increased by 2
d. Decreases by 4 and its atomic number is decreased by 2
69: Gamow assumed that α particle may exist as an alpha particle within a nucleus
a. Heavy
b. Light
c. Intermediate
d. Any of these
70: A nuclide A (with mass number A and atomic number Z) disintegrates emitting alpha particle. The resulting nuclide B has mass number and atomic number respectively, equal to
a. A-2 and Z
b. A-4 and Z-4
c. A-4 and Z-1
d. A+4 and Z+1
71: What is X in following relation: 37Li+11H → 24He+X
a.13H
b. 01D
c. 12D
d. 24He
72: If a radioactive nuclide AZX decays by emitting gamma ray, then the resulting nuclide has
a. A different Z value
b. The same Z and A value
c. A different A value
d. None of these
73: Alpha rays can be detected by fog tracks made in
a. Scintillation counter
b. Geiger Muller tube
c. Wilson cloud chamber
d. Nuclear reactor
74: In the nuclear process 611C →β+ +X, X stands for
a. Proton
b. Neutrino
c. antineutrino
d. neutron
75: Beta decay is also called …… transformation
a. Isobaric
b. Isotonic
c. Isotopic
d. none of these
76: During a negative Beta decay
a. An atomic electron ejected
b. An electron which is already present within the nucleus is ejected
c. A neutron in nucleus decays an emitting an electron
d. A part of biding energy of nuclei is converted into an electron
77: The equation AZX → Z+1AY+-10e+υ_ represents
a. Fission
b. Fusion
c. Beta decay
d. Gamma decay
79: When the radioactive isotope 88238Ra decays in a series by the emission of the three alpha particle and a beta particle. The isotope finally formed is
a. 88220Ra
b. 86215Ra
c. 86272Ra
d. 83236Ra
80: Emission of beta rays in radioactive decay results in a daughter element showing a
a. Change in charge but not in mass
b. Change in mass but not in mass
c. Change in both
d. Change in neither
81: If 84210Po emits beta particle (electron), atomic number of the resulting nucleus will be
a. 82
b. 83
c.84
d. 85
82: A positron is emitted by a radioactive nucleus of atomic number 90, the product nucleus will have the atomic number
a. 90
b. 91
c.89
d. 88
83: As a result of radioactive decay a 92238U changed to 91234Pa nucleus, during this decay particle emitted are
a. Two β particles and one proton
b. One α and one β particle
c. One proton and two neutrons
d. Two β particles and one neutron
84: Of the following one which can be penetrate through 20cm thick steel plate is
a. Positive rays
b. Alpha rays
c. Beta rays
d. Gamma rays
85: A πο mesons at rest decay \s into two gamma rays πο → γ+ γ, then which of the following is correct
a. Two γ rays moves in the direction opposite to each other
b. Two γ rays have unequal energies
c. Both the γ moves in the same direction
d. The γ rays will periodically approaching and receding from each other
86: Which one of the following ejects the photoelectrons of the highest energy under optimum condition of irradiation
a. Ultraviolet radiation
b. Infrared radiation
c. Gamma rays
d. Monochromatic yellow light
87: A high energy Gamma ray may materialize into
a. A meson
b. A proton and a neutron
c. An electron and proton
d. An electron and a positron
88: γ-ray consists of
a. Electromagnetic Waves
b. Fast moving electrons
c. Helium nuclei
d. Singly ionized atom
89: The combination of radioactive emissions will not change the radioactive nuclear
a. Alpha and beta decays
b. Alpha and Gamma decays
c. Alpha beta and gamma decays
d. Beta and gamma decays
90: In the reaction represented by AZX → Z-2A-4Y→ Z-2A-4Y→ Z-1A-4K, the decay in the sequence is
a. α, γ, β
b. γ, α, β
c. β, γ, α
d. α, β, γ
91: The half-life period of radioactive sample depends upon
a. Nature of substance
b. Pressure
c. Temperature
d. All of these
92: If the half-life of the radioactive metal is 2 years
a. The metal will completely disintegrate in 2 years
b. ¼ of it will remain after 8 years
c. The metal will completely disintegrate in 8 years
d. It will never disintegrate completely
93: The decay constant λ of radioactive decay
a. Is independent of age
b. Depends on nature of activity
c. Increase as the age of atoms increases
d. Decrease as the age of atoms decreases
94: The relation between half-life t1/2 of a radioactive sample and its mean life T is
a. T=2.718 t1/2
b. T= t1/2
c. T=0.693 t1/2
d. t1/2=0.693 T
95: Radioactivity of an element becomes 1/64th of its original value in 60 seconds, the half-life period is
a. 30
b. 15
c.10
d. 15
96: The average life τ and decay constant λ of a radioactive nucleus are related as
a. τ=C/λ
b. τ/λ=1
c.τ=0.693λ
d. τλ=1
97: 16g sample of a radioactive is taken from Lahore to Islamabad in 2 hours and it was found that 1g of element remained (un-disintegrate), the half-life of element is
a. 2 hours
b. 1 hours
c.1/2 hours
d. ¼ hours
98: After two hours one sixteenth of starting amount of certain radioactive isotope remain un-decayed, the half-life of the isotope is
a. 15 minutes
b. 30 minutes
c. 45minutes
d. 1 hours
99: A radioactive substance has a half-life 50 minutes during 3 hours the fraction of atom that have decayed would be
a. 12.5%
b. 87.5%
c. 8.5%
d. 25.1%
100: The half-life of 90234Th is 20 days. If 8kh of this isotope is present initially, what amount remain after 72 days
a. 1kg
b. 2kg
c. 4kg
d. 5kg
101: If 10% of radioactive element decays in 5 days, what would be percentage of amount of original material left after 20 days
a. 55.6%
b. 65.6%
c. 75.6%
d. 85.6%
102: A freshly prepared radioactive source of half-life 2 hours emits radiation of intensity which is 64 times the permissible safe level. The minimum time after which it would be possible to which it would be possible to work safely with this source
a. 128 hours
b. 24 hours
c.12 hours
d. 6 hours
103: The half-life of radioactive radon is 3.8 days the time at the end of which 1/20th of the radon sample will remain un-decayed is nearly (log10e=0.4343)
a. 1.6 days
b. 16.4 days
c. 20 days
d. 3.8×20 days
104: A radioactive sample with a half-life of 1 month with label, “activity =2 micro curies on 1.8.1991”. What where it’s activity two months later in micro curies
a. 1.0
b. 0.5
c.4
d. 8
105: Half-life period of a Lead is
a. 1590 years
b. 1590 days
c. Infinite
d. zero
106: Consider a radioactive material of half-life is one minute. If one of nuclei decays now
a. After one minute
b. After 1/loge2 minutes
c. After one minute where N is number of nuclei present at that moment
d. After any time
107: What is curie
a. Measurement of electric field
b. Measurement of magnetism
c. Measurement of temperature
d. Measurement of radioactivity
108: Atomic mass number of element is 232 and its atomic number is 90. The end product of this radioactive element is an isotope of lead (atomic mass 208 and atomic number 82). The number of alpha and beta particle emitted are
a. α=4 and β=6
b. α=6 and β=0
c. α=6 and β=4
d. α=3 and β=3
109: The rate dis-integration of a given sample of radio nuclides is 1017 atoms/s and half-life is 1445 years.
a. 1.443×1017
b.1.4×1017
c. 6.57 ×1027
d. None of these
110: If the half-life of a radioactive material is 2 days, how much material will be left after 6 days
a. 1/8
b. 1/6
c.½
d. ¼
111: Which of the following true for both X-rays and α-rays
a. They cause ionization of air when they pass through it
b. They can be deflected in electric and magnetic field
c. They can be used to detect flaws in metal coatings
d. They travel with the speed of light
112: The element not occurring in nature
a. 92233U
b. 92235U
c. 92238U
d. 90232Th
113: Radio isotopes are used as tracers in many problems on account of the fact that
a. There chemical properties are different
b. They can be detected accurately in small quantity
c. They can’t be distinguish from normal atom easily
d. None of above
114: The counting rate observed from radioactive source at t=0s was 1600 counts per second and t=8s it was 100 counts per second. The counting rate observed as counts per second at t=6s will be
a. 400
b.300
c. 150
d. 200
115: If α, β and γ-rays have ionizing power Iα, Iβ and Iγ respectively then
a. Iα > Iβ > Iγ
b. Iα < Iβ < Iγ
c. Iα = Iβ = Iγ
d. None of these
116: A radioactive nucleus undergoes a series of decay according to the scheme, A →α A1→βA2→αA3→λA4 If the mass number and atomic number of A are 180 and 72 respectively, what are these numbers for A4
a. 172, 69
b.170, 69
c. 174, 71
d. 180, 70
117: Which of the following is alpha particle
a. +1e0
b. -1e0
c. 0n1
d. 2He4
118: Which of the following is β-1 particle
a. +1e0
b. -1e0
c. 0n1
d. 2He4
119: Which of the following is β+1 particle
a. +1e0
b. -1e0
c. 0n1
d. 2He4
120: Which of the following is true for Gamma ray, it carries
a. Positive charge
b. Negative charge
c. Infinite mass
d. Zero rest mass and neutral
121: Which type of radiation stopped by a sheet of paper
a. Alpha rays
b. Beta rays
c. X-rays
d. Gamma rays
122: Which is the missing element from the equation 88Ra226 → ? + 2He4
a. 86Rn230
b. 86Rn220
c. 86Rn228
d. 86Rn222
123: Which is the missing element from the equation 6C14 →?+ -1e0
a. 7N13
b. 6C12
c. 8O17
d. 7N14
124: A reaction that release more energy that is put it into it is called
a. Endothermic
b. Exothermic
c. Chemical
d. Nuclear
125: The reaction 0n1 +92U235→36Kr92+56Ba141+30n1 is called
a. Alpha decay
b. Beta decay
c. Fission
d. Fusion
126: The reaction, 1H2 +1H3→2He4+0n1 is called
a. Alpha decay
b. Beta decay
c. Fission
d. Fusion
127: When an electron is emitted by unstable nucleus, the atomic mass number A is
a. Increased by 1
b. Increased by 2
c.Decreased by 1
d. Don not change
128: When a positron is emitted by unstable nucleus, the atomic mass number A is
a. Increased by 1
b. Increased by 2
c.Decreased by 1
d. Don not change
129: When an Alpha particle is emitted by unstable nucleus, the atomic mass number A is
a. Increased by 1
b. Increased by 2
c. Decreased by 4
d. Don not change
130: When free protons and neutrons join to form a nucleus, the energy is
a. Absorbed
b. Destroyed
c. Created
d. Released
131: Which one of the following is binding energy
a. E=hf
b. E=mgh
c. E=qv
d. E=∆mc2
132: Which of the following is correct product of α-decay 88Ra226 →?+ 2He4
a. 90Th232
b. 91Pa231
c. 86Rn222
d. 87Fr223
133: Which of the following is correct product of β-1-decay
6C14 →?+ -1e0
a. 7N13
b. 6C12
c. 7N14
d. 8O17
134: Which of the following is correct product of β+1-decay
10Ne10 →? + +1e0
a. 9F19
b. 8O18
c. 8O17
d. 8O17
135: Which is the missing element from the equation
4Be9 +?→ 6C12+0n1
a. -1e0
b. +1e0
c. 1H1
d. 2He4
136: Which is the missing element from the equation 7N14 +2He4 → 8O17+?
a. -1e0
b. +1e0
c. 1H1
d. 2He4
137: Which is the missing element from the equation 12Mg24 +0n1 → 11Na23+?
a. -1e0
b. +1e0
c. 1H1
d. 1H2
138: When 16Pa30 decays to becomes 14Si30, the particle release is
a. Electron
b. Alpha Particle
c. Neutron
d. Positron
139: Among electron, proton, neutron and α-particle maximum penetration capacity is for
a. Electron
b. Alpha Particle
c. Neutron
d. Positron
140: The first nuclear isomer is discovered by Hahn was
a. Pa-234m
b. U-234m
c. k-40m
d. Cu-64m
141: The longest lived nuclear metastable state is
a. 73Ta180m
b. 73Ca180m
c. 73Ti180m
d. 73Pa180m
142: If Q=0 and if the particles are the same before and after the reaction, it is the reaction is called
a. Elastic collision
b. Inelastic collision
c. Direct reaction
d. insufficient data to apply
143: Complete the Chadwick reaction: 24He +49Be → (613C)* →? +01n
a. 612C
b. 612B
c. 714N
d. All of above
144: The reaction γ+12H → (12H)* →11H+01n
a. (α, n) reaction
b. (γ,n) reaction
c. (d,n) reaction
d. Not known
145: Conservation of proton and neutron number is a result of the process in which no meson formation or quark rearrangement take place
a. Low energy
b. High energy
c. Exchange
d. none of above
146: A decay process occurs if its Q-value is
a. Positive
b. Negative
c. Zero
d. All of these
147: The difference of initial mass energy and final mass energy is known as
a. Q-value
b. Threshold energy
c. Binding energy
d. none of these
148: The charge independence of nuclear forces means that in most instances we do not need to distinguish in the formalism between
a. Neutrons, Electrons
b. Electrons, Protons
c. Neutrons, Protons
d. All of these
149: The conservation of angular momentum enables us to relate the spin assignments of the reacting particles and the orbital angular momentum carried by outgoing particles, which can be deduced by measuring its
a. Linear distribution
b. Angular distribution
c. Velocity
d. All of these
150: In nuclear physics neutrons and protons are treated as two different states of a single particle
a. Nucleon
b. Atom
c. Nucleus
d. Insufficient data to apply
151: The level width has units of
a. Energy
b. Mass
c. Time
d. Speed
152: The mean life time T and level width Γ are related as
a. Γ×T= ħ
b. Γ/T= ħ
c. T/Γ= ħ
d. none of these
153: Two degenerate nuclear states of the nucleon in the absence of electromagnetic field, like the two degenerate spin states of a nucleon in the absence of magnetic field are assigned. The is spin-up is arbitrarily assigned to
a. Proton
b. Electron
c. Neutron
d. Positron
154: Two degenerate nuclear states of the nucleon in the absence of electromagnetic field, like the two degenerate spin states of a nucleon in the absence of magnetic field are assigned. The is spin-down is arbitrarily assigned to
a. Proton
b. Electron
c. Neutron
d. Positron
155: Energy level of a nucleus are
a. Bounding energy level
b. Virtual energy level
c. Entrance channel
d. Exit channel
156: The quantity dα/dΩ is called the
a. Total cross section
b. Macroscopic cross section
c. Differential cross section
d. Microscopic cross section
157: The process of formation of compound nucleus is called
a. P-channel
b. N-channel
c. Entrance channel
d. Exit channel
158: The process of disintegration of compound nucleus is called
a. P-channel
b. N-channel
c. Entrance channel
d. Exit channel
159: Elastic coulomb scattering is also called
a. Nuclear scattering
b. Rutherford scattering
c. Raman scattering
d. Rayleigh scattering
160: The particle approaches the target nucleus along a straight line that would pass a distance b from the nucleus in the absence of the repulsive force; this distance is called
a. Impact parameter
b. Displacement
c. Amplitude
d. none of these
161: The reaction: a+X →X*+a, is known as
a. Elastic scattering
b. Inelastic scattering
c. Electron capture
d. Neutron capture
162: Inelastic scattering could proceed either through a direct process or a compound nucleus largely depending on the energy of the
a. Target nucleus
b. Product nucleus
c. Incident particle
d. All of these
163: The measure of the relative probability for the reaction to occur is called
a. Transmutation
b. Cross-section
c. Resonance
d. Level width
164: The threshold energy of nucleus reaction a+X→Y+b is
a. -Eth=-Q(mY+mb/mX)
b. -Eth=-Q(mX+ma/mX)
c. -Eth=-Q(1+ma/mX)
d. All of these
165: When we increase the energy of the incident particle, then a point is reached where the distance of closest approach decreases to the nuclear radius and thus the projectile and target feel’s each other’s
a. Coulomb force
b. Nuclear force
c. Gravitational force
d.) none of these
166: The reaction for which Q<0 is called
a. Exothermic reaction
b. Endothermic reaction
c. Electron capture
d. Neutron capture
167: The reaction 13H(p,d)12H with Q=-4.03MeV is
a. Exothermic reaction
b. Endothermic reaction
c. Electron capture
d. Neutron capture
168: The reaction for which Q>0 is called
a. Exothermic reaction
b. Endothermic reaction
c. Electron capture
d. Neutron capture
169: The reaction 919F(p,a)818O with Q=+8.13MeV is
a. Exothermic reaction
b. Endothermic reaction
c. Electron capture
d. Neutron capture
170: The elastic nuclear scattering of particles bears a strong resemblance to a familiar problem from optics
a. The diffraction of light by an opaque disk
b. The refraction of light by an opaque disk
c. The reflection of light by an opaque disk
d. The polarization of light by an opaque disk
171: Consider the reaction 82208Pb(n, n)82208Pb with Q=0; this reaction is known as
a. Elastic scattering
b. inelastic scattering
c. Electron capture
d. Neutron capture
172: The reverse process of nuclear decay is known as
a. Alpha decay
b. Beta decay
c. Gamma decay
d. Transmutation
173: The alpha decay of Radium-222 produces
a. Thorium-218
b. Calsium-218
c. radon-218
d. Magnesium-218
174: The reaction 1H2+γ → [1H2]* →1H2+01n is
a. (α, n) reaction
b. (γ,n) reaction
c. (d,n) reaction
d. Not known
175: The reaction 13Al27+γ → [13Al27]* →11Na24+1H2 +01n is
a. (α, 2p, n) reaction
b. (γ,n) reaction
c. (d, α) reaction
d. (α, d)
176: The general form of reaction 1H2+ZXA→ [Z+1CnA+2] →Z-1YA-2+2He4 is
a. (α, 2p, n) reaction
b. (γ,n) reaction
c. (d, α) reaction
d. (α, d)
177: The general type of (P, α)1H1+ZXA→ [Z+1CnA+1] →
a. Z-1YA-3+2He4
b. Z-1YA-3+2He4
c. ZYA-3+2He4
d. Z-1YA+2He4
178: The general type of (P, n) 1H1+ZXA→ [Z+1CnA+1] →
a. Z-1YA-3+01n
b. Z-1YA-3+01n
c. ZYA-3+01n
d. Z-1YA+01n
179: The general type of (P, γ) 1H1+ZXA→ [Z+1CnA+1] →
a. Z-1YA+1+ γ
b. Z-1YA-3+ γ
c. ZYA-3+ γ
d. Z-1YA+ γ
180: The general type of (α, P) 2He4+ZXA→ [Z+2CnA+4] →
a. Z-1YA+3+1H1
b. Z-1YA-3+ 1H1
c. ZYA-3+ 1H1
d. Z-1YA+ 1H1
181: The general type of (α, n) 2He4+ZXA→ [Z+2CnA+4] →
a. Z-1YA+3+01n
b. Z-1YA-3+ 01n
c. ZYA-3+ 01n
d. Z-1YA+01n
182: The Chadwick reaction is 2He4+4Be9→ [6C13] →
a. 9F17+01n
b. 6C12+ 01n
c. 2He4+ 01n
d. 9S17+01n
183: The reaction 1H1+6C12→1H1+6C12 is
a. Inelastic scattering
b. Elastic scattering
c. Fission
d. Neutron capture
184: The reaction a+ZXA→ (ZXA)*+a is
a. Inelastic scattering
b. Elastic scattering
c. Fission
d. Neutron capture
185: If Q=0 and if the particles are the same before and after the reaction, it is the reaction is called
a. Elastic collision
b. Inelastic collision
c. Direct reaction
d. insufficient data to apply
186: Complete the Chadwick reaction: 24He +49Be → (613C)* →? +01n
a. 612C
b. 612B
c. 714N
d. All of above
187: The level width has units of
a. Energy
b. Mass
c. Time
d. Speed
188: The mean life time T and level width Γ are related as
a. Γ×T= ħ
b. Γ/T= ħ
c. T/Γ= ħ
d. none of these
189: The excitation energy is not sufficient to emit particles from
a. Bounding energy level
b. Virtual energy level
c. Entrance channel
d. Exit channel
190: The mean life time and level width of a nucleus are related as
a. Γ×τ= ħ
b. Γ/ τ = ħ
c. Γ×τ = ħ2
d. Γ×τ2 = ħ
191: The energy level of nucleus is
a. Not uniformly speed
b. Uniformly speed
c. Virtual speed
d. none of these
192: When aluminum is bombarded with Alpha particle, radioactive phosphorous is formed i.e. 1327Al +24He →1530P one more particle formed in this reaction
a. An electron
b. A neutron
c. Negatively charged helium atom
d. Negatively charged hydrogen atom
193: If 510B is bombarded with neutron and α-particle is emitted the residual nucleus is
a. 01n
b. 12D
c. 31H
d. 37Li
194: In the D-D reaction energy released per nucleon is equal to
a. 3MeV
b. 3.5MeV
c. 1MeV
d. 4.5MeV
195: Most suitable eslement for nuclear fission is the element with atomic number near
a. 92
b. 52
c. 21
d. 11
196: How many neutrons are released in the reaction 01n+92235U →3894Sr+54140Xe+ 01n
a. 2
b. 3
c. 5
d. 7
197: In order to carry out the nuclear reaction: 11H+11H +12H = 24He+10e+energy
a. Very high temperature and low pressure would be necessary
b. High temperature and relatively high pressure would be necessary
c. Moderates temperature and high pressure will be necessary
d. High temperature will only be necessary
198: The material used for absorbing the extra neutron in nuclear reactor is
a. Zinc
b. Uranium
c. Radium
d. Cadmium
199: Thermal neutron have energy around
a. 10eV
b. 100eV
c. 1eV
d. All of these
200: On an average how many neutrons are released per fission
a. 2
b. 1
c. 3
d. 2.5
201: The moderator are used in nuclear reactor to
a. Accelerate neutrons
b. Slow down neutrons
c. Produce neutrons
d. None of these
202: Fission chain reaction in the nuclear reactor can be controlled by introducing
a. Cadmium rods
b. Iron rods
c. Graphite rods
d. none of these
203: Most of the energy released in the fission reaction in the form of
a. Kinetic energy of fission fragments
b. Kinetic energy of neutrons
c. Gamma rays
d. Energy of neutrino
204: Cadmium rods are used in nuclear reactor to
a. Generate neutrons
b. Slow down neutrons
c. Produce neutrons
d. Absorbs neutrons
205: How many radioactive disintegrations per second are defined as Becquerel
a. 106
b. 3.7×1010
c. 1
d. None of these
206: In nuclear reactor trombay which of the following is used as the moderator:
a. Ordinary water
b. Cadmium
c. Copper
d. Heavy water
207: Which of the following is used to cause the fission in an atomic reactor
a. Photon
b. Alpha particle
c. Beta particle
d. Neutron
208: Which of the following is best nuclear fuel
a. Neptunium 293
b. Plutonium 239
c. Uranium 236
d. Thorium 236
209: The moderator in the reactor
a. Absorbs neutrons
b. Slow down neutrons
c. Accelerate neutrons
d. Absorbs thermal energy
210: For an atomic reactor being critical the ratio of average number of neutrons produced and used in the chain reaction
a. Depends on mass of fissionable material
b. Greater than one
c. Equal to one
d. Less than one
211: A moderator is used to slow down
a. Alpha particle
b. Beta particle
c. Protons
d. Neutrons
212: Trans-uranium element are those whose atomic number is
a. Always more than 92
b. Less than 92
c. Always more than 103
d. None of these
213: When one atom of uranium U235 undergoes to fission reaction, energy liberated is
a. 20MeV
b. 30MeV
c. 100MeV
d. 200MeV
214: Heavy water is used as moderator in nuclear reactor, the function of moderator is to
a. Control the energy released in the reactor
b. Absorb neutron and stops chain reaction
c. Cool the reactor
d. Slow down the neutrons to thermal energy
215: Which of the following kinds of rays will usually be produced by bombardment of metal target by cathode rays
a. Alpha particle
b. Beta particle
c. Cosmic rays
d. X rays
216: Which of the following is most closely related radiant heat
a. Infrared light
b. Yellow light
c. Ultra-violet
d. X rays
217: In a breeder reactor, useful fuel obtained from 238U is
a. Pu239
b. U238
c. Th235
d. Ac233
218: The main source of solar energy is
a. Combustion
b. Gravitational concentration
c. Fusion
d. Fission
219: Which of the following is not a mad of radioactive decay
a. Alpha decay
b. positron emission
c. Electron capture
d. Fusion
220: Compound containing same amount of radioisotope is
a. Radioactive compound
b. Nonradioactive compound
c. Tracer
d. None of these
221: The particle which can be added to nucleus of an atom without changing its chemical properties is called
a. Alpha particles
b. Electrons
c. Protons
d. Neutrons
222: The radioactive decay rate of radioactive element is found to be 103 disintegrations at a certain time. If the half-life of the element is one second then decay rate after one second and three second respectively is
a. 100, 10
b. 103, 103
c. 125, 500
d. 500, 125
223: The energy released per fission 92U235 nucleus is nearly
a. 200KeV
b. 30MeV
c. 200eV
d. 200MeV
224: Fission of a nucleus is achieved by bombarding it with
a. X rays
b. Electrons
c. Protons
d. Neutrons
225: The mass of product in fission
a. Equal to original nucleus
b. More than the original nucleus
c. Less the original nucleus
d. Not measurable
226: More readily fissionable isotope of uranium has an atomic mass of
a. 235
b. 236
c. 238
d. 234 36.
227: During the fusion of hydrogen into helium
a. Energy absorbed
b. Energy released
c. Mass is deduced
d. Mass is increase
228: The equation 4+11H→2++4He +2e++26MeV represents
a. Alpha decay
b. Beta decay
c. Fission
d. Fusion
229: Which is heavy water
a. Water in which soap does not lather
b. Compound of heavy oxygen and hydrogen
c. Compound of deuterium and hydrogen
d. water at 4οC
230: The critical mass of nuclear reaction is
a. Initial mass to start nuclear fission
b. Minimum mass of chain reaction
c. The size of reactor core
d. Size of nuclear fuel + size of moderator
231: A fast reactor does not use
a. A moderator
b. Coolant
c. A control system
d. Nuclear level
232: The source of solar energy is mainly due to the
a. Pair production
b. Pair inhalation
c. Fission
d. Fusion
233: The element Sr90 (Strontium) is a source of
a. Alpha rays
b. Beta rays
c. Both a and b
d. Gamma rays
234: Nuclear fission is practical example of
a. Chemical reaction
b. Endothermic reaction
c. Exothermic reaction
d. None of these
235: The sun is composed of
a. 73% of carbon
b. 73% of hydrogen
c. 73% of iron
d. 73% of oxygen
236: The surface energy increases and coulomb energy decreases in
a. Pair production
b. Pair inhalation
c. Fission
d. Fusion
237: The mass of product in fission
a. Equal to original nucleus
b. More than the original nucleus
c. Less the original nucleus
d. Not measurable
238: Compound containing some amount of radioisotope is
a. Radioactive compound
b. Nonradioactive compound
c. Tracer
d. None of these
239: A reaction that releases more energy than is put into is called
a. Chemical
b. Endothermic
c. Exothermic
d. Nuclear
240: The following reaction 01n+92235U →56141Ba +3692Kr +01n is called
a. Alpha decay
b. Beta decay
c. Fusion
d. Fission
241: The following reaction: 12H+13H→24He+10e is called
a. Alpha decay
b. Beta decay
c. Fusion
d. Fission
242: The moderators are used to slow sown
a. Alpha particles
b. Neutrons
c. Beta particles
d. Proton
243: The isotope of uranium 92U238 consists of
a. Proton=92 and Neutrons=143
b. Proton=92 and Neutrons=146
c. Proton=92 and Neutrons=144
d. Proton=92 and Neutrons=145
244: If half-life of radioactive material is 2 days, how much material will be left after 6 days
a. 1/6
b. ¼
c. ½
d. 1/8
245: The half-life of 90Th234 is 24 days. If 8kg of this isotope is present initially what amount remains after 72 days
a. 1kg
b. 2kg
c. 4kg
d. 5kg
246: how many neutrons are released during the following fission reaction: 01n+92235U →3894Sr+54140Xe+? 01n
a. 2
b. 3
c. 5
d. 7
247: During the fusion of hydrogen into helium
a. Energy absorbed
b. Energy released
c. Mass is deduced
d. Mass is increase
248: When one atom of uranium U235 undergoes to fission reaction, energy liberated is
a. 20MeV
b. 30MeV
c. 100MeV
d. 200MeV
249: Fission chain reaction in the nuclear reactor can be controlled by introducing
a. Cadmium rods
b. Iron rods
c. Graphite rods
d. none of these
250: Strontium-90 is used as
a. Alpha particle source
b. Beta particle source
c. Gammaparticle source
d. Neutron source
251: Nuclear fission is practical example of
a. Chemical reaction
b. Endothermic reaction
c. Exothermic reaction
d. None of these
252: The time in which half of atoms of parent element decay element is called
a. Third life
b. Quarter life
c. Half-life
d. None of these
253: The solar energy is mainly due to
a. Combustion
b. Gravitational concentration
c. Fusion
d. Fission
254: The sun is composed of
a. 73% of carbon
b. 73% of hydrogen
c. 73% of iron
d. 73% of oxygen
255: The surface energy increases and coulomb energy decreases in
a. Pair production
b. Pair inhalation
c. Fission
d. Fusion
256: Essential parts of an accelerators are
a. Ion source
b. Beam transport
c. Target
d. All of these
257: The electrostatic accelerator is
a. Cyclotrons
b. betatrons
c. Van de Graff accelerator
d. Synchrotrons
258: Van de Graff accelerator can accelerate the particle up to
a. 50MeV
b. 10MeV
c. 500MeV
d. 40MeV
259: Most widely used gas in Van de Graff accelerator is
a. N2
b. Co2
c. SF6
d. He
260: Electron synchrotron is modified form of
a. Cyclotrons
b. betatrons
c. Tandem accelerator
d. Synchrotrons
261: The electron synchrotrons are based on the principle of the combined working of
a. Betatrons and Cyclotrons
b. Cyclotrons and linear accelerator
c. Betatrons and nonand linear accelerator
d. None of these
262: The cyclic accelerator is
a. Cyclotrons
b. betatrons
c. Synchrotrons
d. All of these
263: Which field of following accelerates the particles in cyclotrons
a. Electric field
b. Magnetic field
c. Both a and b
d. None of these
264: Which field of following detect the particles in cyclotrons
a. Electric field
b. Magnetic field
c. Both a and b
d. None of these
265: The cyclotrons cannot accelerate
a. Neutrons
b. Deuteron
c. Proton
d. Alpha particle
266: The region of two deeds of cyclotron acts as
a. Pascal cage
b. Faraday cage
c. Gauss cage
d. Lawrence cage
267: Which of the following produce highest energy of particles of all mechanics
a. Proton synchrotrons
b. Electron Synchrotrons
c. Cyclotrons
d. Betatrons
268: For linear accelerator, the velocity is proportional to
a. n
b. n2
c. 1/n
d. (n)1/2
269: For linear accelerator, the distance travelled by ions depends upon
a. n
b. n2
c. 1/n
d. (n)1/2
270: The critical feature of cyclotron is that the time it takes for a particle to travel one semi-circular path is independence of
a. Electric field
b. Magnetic field
c. Radius of path
d. None of these
271: Cyclotron resonance frequency is:
a. ω=eB/2πm
b. ω=eB/4πm
c. ω=eB/2m
d. None of above
272: In cyclotron, the frequency of rotation of charged particle decreases as the velocity
a. Increase
b. Decrease
c. Remains Constant
d. None of above
273: Betatrons works on the principle of
a. Electromagnetic induction
b. Self induction
c. Superposition
d. None of these
274: In betatron electrons move in an orbit of
a. Ellipse
b. Hyperbola
c. Circle of constant radius
d. Circle of variable constant
275: In betatron electrons are injected during
a. Zero Magnetic field
b. Increasing Magnetic field
c. Decreasing Magnetic field
d. MaximumMagnetic field
276: A disadvantage of van de Graff accelerator is its
a. High current output
b. High voltage output
c. Low current output
d. None of these
277: In synchrotrons, the frequency is
a. Kept constant
b. Varied
c. Varied as square radius of orbit \
d. None of these
278: Which of the following about the Gamma ray is true
a. It carries positive charge
b. It carries negative charge
c. It can be deflected by magnetic field
d. It has zero rest mass and neutral charge
279: Which type of radiation is stopped by sheet of paper
a. Alpha particle
b. Beta particle
c. Gamma rays
d. X rays
280: The energy of electron in a stationary orbit of hydrogen atom is
a. Positive
b. Negative
c. Zero
d. infinity
281: Which of the following give discrete emission spectrum
a. Candle
b. Mercury vapor lamp
c. Sun
d. Incandescent bulb
282: A semiconductor diode detector is essentially
a. A reverse bias pn-junction
b.A forward bias pn-junction
c. Sometimes a and sometimes b
d. None of these
283: In organic oscillators, the interaction between the molecules are relative
a. Strong
b. weak
c. Extremely strong
d. None of these
284: The dead time of Geiger Muller tube is
a. 10-3S
b. 10-4S
c. 10-6S
d. S-8S
285: Geiger Muller counter uses
a. Alcohol
b. Bromine
c. Argon
d. Neon, Bromine
286: The tungsten wire fixed along the axis of Geiger Muller counter acts as
a. Cathode
b. Anode
c. Grid
d. None of these
287: The dead time of Geiger Muller counter is of the order of
a. Microsecond
b. Millisecond
c. More than millisecond
d. Nanosecond
288: Electrons with energy very much greater than 1MeV radiate considerable fraction of their energy in the form of X-rays due to their inelastic collisions with coulomb field of atomic nuclei and also with electrons. This phenomenon is known as
a. Bremsstrahlung
b. Isotopic effect
c. Radioactivity
d. Scintillator
289: The ionization chamber works on the principle that charged particles
a. Can ionize a gas
b. Cannot ionize the gas
c. Scintillate the gas
d. None of these
290: Energy indeed to produce an electron hole in solid state detector is
a. 1-2 eV
b. 3-4 eV
c. 6-7 eV
d. 7-9 eV
291: Photomultiplier converts the light energy into
a. Nuclear energy
b. Heat energy
c. Electrical energy
d. None of these
292: In scintillation counter, electrons are accelerated by
a. Electric field
b. Magnetic field
c. Both a and b
d. Oscillating fiel
293: The choiof photomultiplier tube depends upon
a. Physical size
b. Sensitivity of photocathode
c. The response of photocathode to different incident wavelengths
d. All of these
294: A device that shows the visible path of ionizing particle is called
a. GM counter
b. Solid state detector
c. Scalar
d. Wilson cloud chamber
295: The principle of scintillation counter is based on
a. Luminescence
b. Ionization
c. Electron hole pair
d. None of these
296: The proportional counter is used for detection of low energy
a. X-rays
b. γ-rays
c. β-rays
d. All of these
297: For neutron detection the ionization chamber is filled with
a. Boron triflouride
b. Hydrogen triflouride
c. Chlorine
d. Alcohol and methane
298: Which one is electrostatic accelerator
a. Cyclotrons
b. betatrons
c. Van de Graff accelerator
d. Synchrotrons
299: Which one is cyclic accelerator
a. Cyclotrons
b. betatrons
c. Synchrotrons
d. All of these
300: Van de Graff accelerator can accelerate the particle up to
a. 50MeV
b. 10MeV
c. 500MeV
d. 40MeV
301: Which field of following accelerates the particles in cyclotrons
a. Electric field
b. Magnetic field
c. Both a and b
d. None of these
302: Betatrons works on the principle of
a. Electromagnetic induction
b. Self induction
c. Superposition
d. None of these
303: Which field of following detect the particles in cyclotrons
a. Electric field
b. Magnetic field
c. Both a and b
d. None of these
304: In betatron electrons move in an orbit of
a. Radius as r2
b. Radius as r3
c. Circle of constant radius
d. Circle of variable constant
305: In betatron electrons are injected during
a. Zero Magnetic field
b. Increasing Magnetic field
c. Decreasing Magnetic field
d. MaximumMagnetic field
306: The vacuum chamber is coated with silver to
a. Avoid any insulation
b. Avoid eddy current
c. Increase conductivity
d. None of these
307: In synchrotrons, the frequency is
a. Kept constant
b. Varied
c. Varied as square radius of orbit
d. None of these
308: For linear accelerator, the velocity is proportional to
a. n
b. n2
c. 1/n
d. (n)1/2
309: Photomultiplier converts the light energy into
a. Nuclear energy
b. Heat energy
c. Electrical energy
d. None of these
310: For linear accelerator, the distance travelled by ions depends upon
a. n
b. n2
c. 1/n
d. (n)1/2
311: The tungsten wire fixed along the axis of Geiger Muller counter acts as
a. Cathode
b. Anode
c. Grid
d. None of these
312: The cyclotrons cannot accelerate
a. Neutrons
b. Deuteron
c. Proton
d. Alpha particle
313: The region of two deeds of cyclotron acts as
a. Pascal cage
b. Faraday cage
c. Gauss cage
d. Lawrence cage
314: A stable nucleus has number of protons and number of neutrons
a. Even-even
b. Even-odd
c. Odd-odd
d. Odd-even
315: Which of the following about the nuclear force is true
a. It is an attractive force between electrons and protons in an atom
b. It is an attractive force between electrons and neutrons in an atom
c. It is much weaker then electromagnetic force
d. It is a strong, short range, attractive force between the nucleus
316: What force is responsible for the radioactive decay in nucleus
a. Gravitational force
b. Weak nuclear force
c. Strong nuclear force
d. Electromagnetic force
317: Why are nuclear energy levels more complex than electron energy levels
a. Nuclear energy levels depends on attractive and repulsive force
b. Nuclear energy levels depends only attractive force
c. Electron energy levels depends on the interaction between neutrons and electrons
d. Electron energy level have greater energy than the nuclear energy levels
318: Nuclear force are
a. Charge independent
b. Spin dependent
c. Short range
d. All of these
319: Nuclear force as compared with electrostatic force is
a. Weaker and long range
b. Weaker and short-range
c. Stronger and long range
d. Stronger and short range
320: According to Yukawa, the quantum exchanged between the nucleus must have mass
a. No
b. Finite
c. Infinite
d. Equal to mass of nucleus
321: Which of the following believe to be carrier of nuclear force
a. Mesons
b. Baryons
c. Positrons
d. Lepton
322: Nuclear force arise from continuous exchange of particles known as
a. Mesons
b. Baryons
c. Positrons
d. Lepton
323: Mass of mesons is
a. Greater than proton
b. Less than proton
c. Equal to proton
d. Equal to neutron
324: The building blocks of protons and neutrons are called
a. Ion
b. Quarks
c. Positron
d. Protons
325: At long distances, of the order of atomic sizes, the nuclear force is negligible feeble, he interactions among nuclei in a molecule can be understood based only on the
a. Coulomb force
b. Newtonian force
c. Nuclear force
d. Gravitational force
326: The existence of neutrino was postulated to explain the contradictions in law/laws of conservation of
a. Energy
b. Mass
c. Momentum
d. Both a / b
327: The nucleon nucleon force seems to be nearly independent of
a. Energy
b. Mass
c. Spin
d. Charge
328: The interaction between two nucleons consist to lowest order of
a. An attractive central potential
b. A repulsive central potential
c. Both a and b
d. None of these
329: The neutron neutron becomes repulsive at
a. Short distance
b. Long distance
c. Both a and b
d. None of these
330: The neutron neutron interaction may also depend on
a. Relative velocity
b. Momentum of nucleons
c. Relative velocity or momentum of nucleons
d. None of these
331: Argument in favor of exchange force model comes from study of
a. n-p scattering at high energy
b. p-p scattering at high energy
c. n-p scattering at low energy
d. p-p scattering at low energy
332: Both saturation of nuclear force and strong backward peak in n-p scattering are explained by
a. Exchange force
b. Newtonian force
c. Nuclear force
d. Gravitational force
333: The particle that only exist only for fleeting instant and allow us to violate conservation of energy and momentum the emitting and absorbing nucleons do not recoil
a. Virtual particles
b. Bound particles
c. Both a and b
d. None of these
334: According to field theory, the coulomb interaction between electric charges can be regarded, which have properties in common with ordinary real
a. Electrons
b. Protons
c. Photons
d. Positrons
335: The difference masses of charged and neutral pions may explain the possible small violation of
a. Charge independent
b. Spin dependent
c. Short range
d. All of these
336: Which one of the following mesons is lightest
a. µ-mesons
b. π-mesons
c. K-mesons
d. None of these
337: The principle argument in support of presence of exchange forces in nuclei are
a. Saturation of unclear force
b. n-p scattering at high energy
c. Both a and b
d. None of these
